J-sus is obviously G-d according to the Christian message. So obviously we would need to be saved by J-sus to get to heaven, unless someone is going to argue something along the lines of Pelagianism (the heresy that we save ourselves).
Well even the NT seems to disagree with this assessment.
JC himself accepted G-d's uniqueness: "And he (JC) said unto him, 'Why callest thou me good? There is none good but one, that is, G-d." (Matthew 19:17).
How, then, could a mortal man-one who was born and who died on a cross-be a segment of an immortal, indivisible G-d? There is no concept of infinity possible if G-d is a man or a Trinity. The Torah states clearly:
"G-d is not a man" (Numbers 23:19).
Clearly jsus didn't just say G-d was good. but made it clear that he was in fact an entirely separate entity from G-d
even rebuking someone for calling him "good" because even he seemed to address that only G-d and G-d alone can be called "good" If jsus was G-d, what? he wouldn't think of himself as good?
What translation are you using? That isn't even close to the Greek. Also, you are omitting the 100% crucially important context prompt question that precedes it.
16 And behold one came and said to him: Good master, what good shall I do that I may have life everlasting?
17 Who said to him: Why asketh thou me concerning good? One is good, G-d. But if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments.
This goes back the Pelagianism discussed before. We cannot save ourselves. Only G-d can 'save' people. It doesn't matter how much time you spend in a soup kitchen: if you don't believe in G-d and keep His commandments, good luck.
J-sus would not refer to the man who was asking him the question as being good. If anyone can save themselves 100% on their own, then truly we are all gods. Rather, that right, that honor, that distinction is reserved for the one true living G-d.
Again, please be sure to include the context: we're not Protestants!
"19 God is not a man, that he should lie, nor as the son of man, that he should be changed. Hath he said then, and will he not do? hath he spoken, and will he not fulfill?"
The verse is simply saying that G-d does not lie. I'm assuming we can agree on the grammatical construction there (not trying to be condescending! I'm just assuming this is very straightforward once the context is included).
Last edited by neoinarien on Fri Apr 08, 2011 1:18 pm; edited 1 time in total (Reason for editing : missed a vowel, my apologies)